CSS Psychology MCQs

This comprehensive set of MCQs on Psychology is designed to cover all essential topics required for a thorough understanding of psychological theories, concepts, and practices. Focused on key subjects such as cognitive psychology, behavioral theories, human development, research methods, and psychological disorders, these MCQs are crafted to help candidates build a strong foundation in the competencies needed for success in competitive examinations like CSS and other government recruitment processes.

Who should practice Psychology MCQs?

Students preparing for CSS exams who aim to enhance their performance in the psychology-related sections of the examination.
Aspiring psychologists and individuals pursuing careers in mental health, counseling, or education, looking to test their knowledge of psychological principles and theories.
Job seekers targeting positions in government sectors, research organizations, or NGOs, requiring a solid understanding of psychological concepts and human behavior.
Individuals preparing for professional certification exams in psychology or related fields, ensuring they are well-equipped to tackle similar questions.
Anyone interested in improving their understanding of human behavior, mental processes, and psychological practices.
Candidates focused on developing a strategic approach to tackling diverse question types commonly found in competitive exams related to psychology.

1. Which of the following best defines psychology?

A) The study of behavior and mental processes
B) The study of the brain’s structure and function
C) The study of the nervous system’s electrical activity
D) The study of how society influences behavior

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2. Psychology is considered a science because it:

A) Studies human behavior only through philosophical reasoning
B) Uses scientific methods to study behavior and mental processes
C) Focuses exclusively on the biological aspects of behavior
D) Relies on intuition and common sense

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3. The “Psychodynamic School” of psychology was founded by:

A) B.F. Skinner
B) Carl Rogers
C) Sigmund Freud
D) John Watson

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4. Which perspective in psychology focuses on observable behaviors and external stimuli?

A) Behavioral Perspective
B) Cognitive Perspective
C) Psychodynamic Perspective
D) Humanistic Perspective

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5. Which of the following is an example of a recent trend in psychology?

A) Focus on unconscious drives
B) Emphasis on subjective experience
C) Use of neuroimaging to study brain activity
D) Reliance on introspection

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6. The nervous system can be divided into which two main components?

A) The brain and spinal cord
B) The central and peripheral nervous systems
C) The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
D) The brain and sensory organs

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7. What is the main function of a neuron?

A) To store memories
B) To transmit electrical impulses
C) To release hormones
D) To support the immune system

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8. The central nervous system (CNS) consists of:

A) The brain and spinal cord
B) The spinal cord and sensory organs
C) The brain and endocrine system
D) The brain and sensory nerves

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9. Which of the following is a key feature of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A) It is responsible for thought processes
B) It consists only of the brain and spinal cord
C) It connects the CNS to limbs and organs
D) It regulates hormonal function

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10. The endocrine system is responsible for:

A) Transmitting electrical signals between neurons
B) Producing hormones that regulate body functions
C) Controlling voluntary muscle movements
D) Sending messages between the brain and spinal cord

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11. Sensation refers to:

A) The interpretation of sensory information
B) The process by which the brain organizes and interprets stimuli
C) The physical detection of external stimuli by sensory organs
D) The unconscious processing of sensory stimuli

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12. Perception involves:

A) The transmission of sensory signals to the brain
B) The organization and interpretation of sensory information
C) The physical detection of stimuli by sensory receptors
D) The unconscious awareness of sensory stimuli

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13. The Gestalt principles of perception emphasize:

A) Breaking down perceptions into basic elements
B) Understanding perception through the eyes of the observer
C) The whole being greater than the sum of its parts
D) The influence of culture on perception

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14. Which of the following are monocular cues for depth perception?

A) Convergence and retinal disparity
B) Light and shadow, relative size, interposition
C) Binocular disparity and motion parallax
D) Pictorial cues and eye movement

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15. “Illusions” in perception refer to:

A) The actual distortion of sensory stimuli
B) The incorrect interpretation of sensory information
C) The process of enhancing sensory perception
D) A loss of sensory capability

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16. Extra Sensory Perception (ESP) refers to:

A) The ability to process sensory information faster
B) The ability to gain information through senses beyond the normal five
C) The awareness of one’s sensory limitations
D) The interpretation of stimuli through cultural context

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17. Which of the following is a determinant of perception?

A) The intensity of stimuli
B) The physiological state of the individual
C) The cultural background of the perceiver
D) All of the above

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18. Classical conditioning is associated with which of the following psychologists?

A) John Watson
B) B.F. Skinner
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Ivan Pavlov

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19. Operant conditioning involves:

A) The association of a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus
B) Reinforcing or punishing voluntary behaviors to increase or decrease their occurrence
C) The study of reflexes and automatic responses
D) Using the unconscious mind to shape behavior

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20. Reinforcement in operant conditioning is defined as:

A) The removal of a stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior
B) The introduction of a stimulus to decrease the likelihood of a behavior
C) The introduction of a stimulus to increase the likelihood of a behavior
D) The punishment of an undesirable behavior

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21. Extinction in the context of classical conditioning refers to:

A) The strengthening of a conditioned response
B) The gradual weakening and disappearance of a conditioned response
C) The introduction of a new unconditioned stimulus
D) The ability to discriminate between stimuli

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22. Discrimination in classical conditioning involves:

A) A conditioned response being generalized to similar stimuli
B) The inability to respond to stimuli that were previously neutral
C) The ability to distinguish between similar but distinct stimuli
D) The complete extinction of a conditioned response

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23. Observational learning is a concept introduced by:

A) Sigmund Freud
B) B.F. Skinner
C) Albert Bandura
D) Carl Rogers

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24. Theories of learning primarily focus on:

A) The impact of genetics on behavior
B) How behavior is acquired and modified
C) The analysis of unconscious thoughts
D) How emotions influence decision-making

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25. Which type of memory is responsible for the temporary storage of information?

A) Sensory memory
B) Short-term memory
C) Long-term memory
D) Working memory

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26. The “information processing model” of memory compares human memory to:

A) A computer
B) A storage cabinet
C) A filing system
D) A treasure chest

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27. Theories of forgetting include:

A) Interference Theory
B) Decay Theory
C) Retrieval Failure Theory
D) All of the above

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28. Which of the following is NOT one of the major theories of memory?

A) Atkinson-Shiffrin Model
B) Levels of Processing Theory
C) Social Learning Theory
D) Parallel Distributed Processing Model

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29. Motivation is best described as:

A) The ability to make decisions
B) The emotional response to external stimuli
C) The internal processes that initiate, guide, and sustain goal-directed behavior
D) The physiological reaction to stress

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30. Homeostasis refers to:

A) The balance of emotions and cognition
B) The body’s ability to maintain a stable internal environment
C) The instinctive drive to survive
D) The regulation of hormones for behavior

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31. Biogenic motives are:

A) Motivations related to survival, such as hunger and thirst
B) Motivations driven by social acceptance
C) Motivations focused on self-actualization
D) Motivations influenced by cultural norms

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32. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation?

A) Receiving money for performing a task
B) Participating in an activity because it is personally enjoyable
C) Following orders to avoid punishment
D) Acting in a way that pleases others

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33. The “James-Lange Theory” of emotion suggests that:

A) Emotions occur first, and then the body responds
B) The body’s physical response to stimuli causes the emotion
C) Emotions are learned through social interactions
D) Emotions arise from cognitive appraisals

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34. Which of the following is NOT considered a basic emotion?

A) Happiness
B) Anger
C) Surprise
D) Confusion

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35. The “Cannon-Bard Theory” of emotion states that:

A) Emotions result from the physiological responses to stimuli
B) Emotions and physiological responses occur simultaneously
C) Cognitive appraisal precedes emotional responses
D) Emotions are learned through social reinforcement

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36. Which of the following is a technique commonly used in psychological assessment?

A) MRI scans
B) Observation and interviews
C) Behavioral reinforcement
D) Electroencephalography (EEG)

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37. Validity in psychological measures refers to:

A) The consistency of the results
B) The accuracy with which the test measures what it is supposed to measure
C) The ability of the test to predict future behavior
D) The ease of administration

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38. Reliability in psychological measures refers to:

A) The ability of a test to measure the same results under consistent conditions
B) The ability to determine the social impact of a behavior
C) The ability to compare results across different groups
D) The ability to ensure the privacy of the subject

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39. Item analysis in psychological testing is primarily used to:

A) Determine the cultural biases in a test
B) Identify the individual’s psychological condition
C) Evaluate the difficulty level and effectiveness of individual test items
D) Assess the ethical implications of the test

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40. In terms of psychological testing, “norms” refer to:

A) The ethical standards for administering tests
B) The typical responses of individuals in a given population
C) The reliability coefficients of a test
D) The cultural adaptations of the test

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41. Which of the following is a critical ethical issue in psychological assessment?

A) The reliability of the test
B) The potential for cultural bias
C) The number of questions in the test
D) The speed of test administration

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42. Personality is primarily defined by:

A) Fixed biological traits
B) The external behavior patterns that individuals exhibit
C) A combination of enduring traits, behaviors, and emotional patterns
D) The mental disorders an individual might possess

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43. The Five-Factor Model of personality includes all of the following except:

A) Openness to experience
B) Conscientiousness
C) Emotional intelligence
D) Neuroticism

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44. According to Freud, the id is:

A) The moral conscience of the personality
B) The source of our basic drives and impulses
C) The mediator between desires and moral constraints
D) A part of the ego that governs social interactions

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45. Which of the following is NOT a method for assessing personality?

A) Projective tests
B) Objective questionnaires
C) Self-report inventories
D) Reflex testing

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46. Which of the following is a cross-cultural issue in personality?

A) The standardization of personality tests across cultures
B) The influence of inherited traits on personality
C) The importance of ego in non-Western cultures
D) The universal applicability of Freudian theory

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47. Which of the following is NOT a theory of intelligence?

A) Spearman’s g factor theory
B) Gardner’s Theory of Multiple Intelligences
C) Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory
D) Vygotsky’s Theory of Socio-Cultural Intelligence

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48. Emotional Intelligence (EQ) involves:

A) The ability to memorize and recall facts
B) The ability to understand and manage emotions in oneself and others
C) The ability to perform well on standardized tests
D) The ability to make rational decisions under stress

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49. Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is:

A) A measure of emotional intelligence
B) A standardized test that measures intelligence through a series of verbal and mathematical tasks
C) A score derived from personality testing
D) A test of sensory processing abilities

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50. Social facilitation refers to:

A) The process of changing one’s behavior to fit group norms
B) The improvement of performance when others are present
C) The inhibition of performance in the presence of others
D) The sharing of knowledge among group members

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51. The “fundamental attribution error” involves:

A) Attributing others’ behaviors to their character while attributing our own to situational factors
B) Viewing one’s behavior as a result of situational factors
C) Making inaccurate assumptions about one’s own intentions
D) Giving credit to external forces for successes

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52. Conformity refers to:

A) Refusing to accept group influence
B) Complying with direct requests from others
C) Changing one’s behavior to match the group’s norms
D) Reacting to authority figures in a consistent manner

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53. Obedience is best described as:

A) Following orders or commands from an authority figure
B) Resisting pressure from others
C) Changing one’s behavior to match the group’s expectations
D) Expressing individual opinions in a group

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54. Altruism involves:

A) Helping others for personal gain
B) Helping others with no expectation of reward
C) Demonstrating selfish behavior for group benefits
D) Helping others in exchange for social approval

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55. Social norms are:

A) Unwritten rules about behavior in a social group
B) Legal regulations governing societal behavior
C) Rules for economic exchanges within a culture
D) Genetic predispositions for social behavior

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56. Which of the following is NOT a stage in Erikson’s psychosocial development theory?

A) Trust vs. Mistrust
B) Initiative vs. Guilt
C) Industry vs. Inferiority
D) Memory vs. Forgetting

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57. According to Piaget, children in the preoperational stage of cognitive development:

A) Can think logically about concrete events
B) Understand conservation of number and mass
C) Exhibit egocentric thinking and use symbols for language
D) Can perform mathematical operations

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58. The “nature vs. nurture” debate focuses on:

A) The influence of biology versus environment on human behavior
B) The role of genetics in intelligence
C) Whether personality is determined by birth order
D) The socialization process in childhood

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59. Cognitive development in adolescence primarily involves:

A) Developing the ability to think abstractly
B) Understanding the importance of conformity
C) Mastering basic mathematical skills
D) Establishing personal identity

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60. The process of identity vs. role confusion occurs during which stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development?

A) Infancy
B) Adolescence
C) Adulthood
D) Late adulthood

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61. Abnormal behavior is characterized by:

A) Behavior that is statistically rare and socially acceptable
B) Behavior that deviates from societal norms and causes significant distress or impairment
C) Behavior that is highly predictable and adaptive
D) Behavior that is consistent across all individuals

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62. Which of the following is a characteristic of schizophrenia?

A) Affective instability
B) Impulsive behavior
C) Hallucinations and delusions
D) Memory loss

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63. A major depressive disorder is characterized by:

A) Periods of manic episodes and impulsive behavior
B) Persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest
C) Chronic worry and physical tension
D) Frequent mood swings

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64. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is characterized by:

A) Excessive and uncontrollable worry about multiple life events
B) Panic attacks with physical symptoms like shortness of breath
C) Persistent fear of social situations
D) Phobic avoidance of specific objects or situations

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65. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) focuses on:

A) Exploring unconscious desires and motivations
B) Changing patterns of thinking and behavior that contribute to distress
C) Reducing symptoms through medication alone
D) Using hypnosis to uncover hidden memories

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66. Which of the following disorders is treated with exposure therapy?

A) Schizophrenia
B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

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67. Leadership styles can be categorized into all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Autocratic
B) Democratic
C) Laissez-faire
D) Narcissistic

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68. Job satisfaction can be influenced by:

A) Salary alone
B) Job responsibilities, work environment, and management support
C) Work location and status
D) Personality traits only

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69. Work-related stress is often managed through:

A) Increased workload
B) Mindfulness and stress-reduction techniques
C) Avoiding work tasks
D) Increased competition between coworkers

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70. Human-computer interaction studies:

A) How individuals communicate with technology and its impact on behavior
B) The design of technology for optimal physical comfort
C) The analysis of psychological effects of social media
D) The development of artificial intelligence systems

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71. Chronic illness often leads to:

A) An increased reliance on social support networks
B) Reduced psychological stress
C) Better overall emotional well-being
D) Less need for medical intervention

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72. Health psychology focuses on:

A) The biological aspects of disease and treatment
B) Psychological factors that influence health and illness
C) The genetic basis of diseases
D) The role of medication in healing processes

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73. Forensic psychology is the intersection of:

A) Law enforcement and criminal behavior
B) Psychological theory and legal applications
C) Social psychology and crime prevention
D) Psychotherapy and rehabilitation

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74. Which of the following is a key area of focus in forensic psychology?

A) Criminal profiling and the psychological evaluation of offenders
B) Understanding the biological causes of mental disorders
C) Therapy for individuals with personality disorders
D) Cognitive testing for educational assessments

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75. Juvenile delinquency is most commonly studied by forensic psychologists in terms of:

A) The effect of family environment on behavior
B) The potential for rehabilitation versus punishment
C) Genetic predispositions to criminal behavior
D) The impact of school culture and peer pressure

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76. The McDonalidization of society refers to:

A) The globalization and standardization of services and practices
B) The rise of consumerism in modern culture
C) The influence of corporate practices on social behavior
D) The dominance of mass production in all industries

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77. The concept of “cognitive dissonance” refers to:

A) The discomfort that arises when a person’s beliefs and behaviors are inconsistent
B) The inability to recall information due to interference
C) The tendency to seek out information that aligns with existing beliefs
D) The state of being aware of the impact of external factors on behavior

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78. Which of the following is true about “self-fulfilling prophecy”?

A) It is the process where expectations about a person’s behavior cause the person to behave in ways that confirm the expectations
B) It is the tendency to make judgments based on first impressions
C) It refers to the process of self-reflection and introspection
D) It is the process of attributing behavior to internal or external causes

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79. The “foot-in-the-door” phenomenon refers to:

A) The tendency to comply with a large request after agreeing to a smaller request
B) The tendency to refuse small requests when overwhelmed by larger ones
C) The desire to conform to group norms to avoid conflict
D) The impulse to act based on sudden emotional urges

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80. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a “groupthink” situation?

A) A desire for consensus overriding realistic appraisal of alternative options
B) High level of independence and individual expression
C) Suppression of dissenting viewpoints
D) High pressure to conform to group opinions

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81. The “halo effect” refers to:

A) The tendency to attribute an individual’s negative traits to their external environment
B) The tendency to allow one positive characteristic to overshadow other, unrelated qualities
C) The tendency to perceive all individuals in a group as identical
D) The tendency to avoid making any evaluations about a person’s traits

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82. The theory that emphasizes the importance of observational learning, imitation, and modeling is known as:

A) Classical conditioning theory
B) Operant conditioning theory
C) Social learning theory
D) Psychoanalytic theory

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83. The “Bobo doll experiment,” conducted by Albert Bandura, was designed to study:

A) The effects of classical conditioning on aggression
B) The influence of punishment and reinforcement on behavior
C) The impact of social modeling on aggression
D) The role of cognitive appraisal in stress

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84. The “Big Five” personality traits include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Openness to experience
B) Conscientiousness
C) Narcissism
D) Neuroticism

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85. A psychologist using the “humanistic” approach to therapy would emphasize:

A) The importance of unconscious drives
B) The role of external reinforcements in shaping behavior
C) The importance of personal growth and self-actualization
D) The analysis of early childhood experiences

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86. Which of the following best describes “operant conditioning”?

A) Learning through association between stimuli
B) Learning by observing others
C) Learning through rewards and punishments
D) Learning through the process of cognitive restructuring

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87. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following is considered a basic physiological need?

A) Self-esteem
B) Love and belonging
C) Safety
D) Food and water

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88. According to Erikson, the main developmental challenge of adolescence is:

A) Trust vs. Mistrust
B) Initiative vs. Guilt
C) Identity vs. Role Confusion
D) Intimacy vs. Isolation

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89. Which of the following is the most accurate description of “social loafing”?

A) The tendency of individuals to exert less effort when working in a group than when working alone
B) The tendency to form groups based on similar personality traits
C) The tendency to overestimate one’s ability in group settings
D) The process of adjusting one’s behavior to match group expectations

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90. The “two-factor theory” of emotion, proposed by Schachter and Singer, suggests that:

A) Emotions are the result of physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal
B) Emotions are determined solely by physiological responses
C) Emotions arise without any conscious awareness
D) Emotions are learned based on social conditioning

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91. In Pavlov’s classical conditioning experiment, the bell initially served as a:

A) Conditioned stimulus
B) Unconditioned stimulus
C) Conditioned response
D) Unconditioned response

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92. The concept of “motivational interviewing” in therapy primarily involves:

A) Encouraging the client to explore and resolve their ambivalence about change
B) Using strict behavioral interventions to control the client’s behavior
C) Directly telling clients what they need to change
D) Focusing primarily on the cognitive aspects of behavior change

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93. The “cognitive-behavioral” approach to treating depression focuses on:

A) Interpreting past traumatic experiences
B) Changing negative thought patterns and behaviors that contribute to distress
C) Using medication to balance neurotransmitters
D) Encouraging emotional expression through psychodrama

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94. Which of the following is a primary goal of health psychology?

A) To understand how biology affects behavior
B) To study how people manage stress and prevent illness
C) To examine the cultural impacts of mental disorders
D) To analyze the legal implications of psychological research

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95. The “biopsychosocial” model of health emphasizes:

A) The importance of psychological factors in understanding physical health
B) The genetic causes of all diseases
C) The role of external social factors in shaping personality
D) The exclusion of social and environmental factors in health outcomes

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96. Which of the following is an example of “primary prevention” in health psychology?

A) Developing a treatment plan for an individual with diabetes
B) Providing therapy to a person recovering from a heart attack
C) Implementing community programs to reduce smoking rates
D) Offering support groups for people living with cancer

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97. The main focus of “forensic psychology” is:

A) Understanding the physiological processes of criminal behavior
B) Applying psychological principles to the legal system
C) Investigating the impact of crime on victims
D) Studying the economic costs of crime prevention

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98. The concept of “cognitive bias” refers to:

A) The tendency to think logically and rationally
B) The tendency to make decisions based on personal beliefs or experiences, rather than objective evidence
C) The unconscious processing of sensory information
D) The ability to regulate emotions in decision-making

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99. The “self-serving bias” refers to:

A) The tendency to attribute positive events to one’s own character, while attributing negative events to external factors
B) The tendency to conform to group norms even when they conflict with personal beliefs
C) The tendency to be overly self-critical in response to failure
D) The tendency to attribute behavior to both internal and external factors simultaneously

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100. The “general adaptation syndrome” (GAS), developed by Hans Selye, describes:

A) The emotional process of adjusting to new situations
B) The psychological stages individuals go through in response to long-term stress
C) The social influences that impact stress levels
D) The process of cognitive restructuring in response to stress

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