MDCAT Reproduction MCQs

This comprehensive set of MCQs on Reproduction is designed to cover all essential topics required for success in the Medical and Dental College Admission Test (MDCAT). Focused on key subjects such as Types of Reproduction, Mechanisms of Gametogenesis, Fertilization, and Developmental Biology, these MCQs aim to help aspiring medical and dental students build a solid foundation in reproductive biology and its significance in health sciences.

Who should practice Reproduction MCQs?

Students preparing for the MDCAT who wish to deepen their understanding of reproductive processes and their relevance to human health and medicine.
Individuals seeking to enhance their knowledge of reproductive strategies, developmental stages, and reproductive health, which are crucial for various medical and dental disciplines.
University students targeting high-yield topics like sexual and asexual reproduction, reproductive cycles, and the impact of reproductive health on overall well-being.
Anyone aiming to strengthen their foundational understanding of reproduction and its implications for health and disease.
Candidates focused on developing critical thinking and analytical skills related to reproductive systems and their impact on human life.

1. The primary male reproductive organ is the:

A) Ovary
B) Testis
C) Uterus
D) Prostate

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2. The male reproductive hormone primarily responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics is:

A) Estrogen
B) Testosterone
C) Progesterone
D) Luteinizing hormone

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3. Sperm are produced in the:

A) Seminal vesicles
B) Epididymis
C) Testes
D) Vas deferens

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4. The tube that carries sperm from the testes to the urethra is called the:

A) Epididymis
B) Urethra
C) Vas deferens
D) Seminal vesicle

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5. The main function of the prostate gland is to:

A) Produce sperm
B) Produce testosterone
C) Secrete fluid that nourishes and protects sperm
D) Store sperm

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6. The process by which sperm are produced in the testes is called:

A) Spermatogenesis
B) Oogenesis
C) Fertilization
D) Menstruation

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7. The scrotum’s primary function is to:

A) Produce testosterone
B) Maintain optimal temperature for sperm production
C) Store sperm
D) Produce seminal fluid

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8. Which of the following is a component of semen?

A) Sperm
B) Fructose
C) Prostate fluid
D) All of the above

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9. The penis contains erectile tissue that allows it to:

A) Produce sperm
B) Maintain temperature
C) Become erect during sexual arousal
D) Secrete hormones

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10. The external structure of the male reproductive system includes the:

A) Testes
B) Scrotum
C) Penis
D) All of the above

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11. The primary female reproductive organ is the:

A) Ovary
B) Testis
C) Uterus
D) Vagina

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12. The female reproductive hormone primarily responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics is:

A) Testosterone
B) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
D) Luteinizing hormone

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13. The process by which eggs are produced in the ovaries is called:

A) Spermatogenesis
B) Oogenesis
C) Fertilization
D) Menstruation

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14. The menstrual cycle is regulated by hormones from which gland?

A) Pituitary gland
B) Thyroid gland
C) Adrenal gland
D) Pancreas

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15. Ovulation occurs approximately on which day of the menstrual cycle?

A) Day 1
B) Day 14
C) Day 21
D) Day 28

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16. The average length of the menstrual cycle is:

A) 21 days
B) 28 days
C) 35 days
D) 40 days

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17. The lining of the uterus that thickens and sheds during the menstrual cycle is called the:

A) Myometrium
B) Endometrium
C) Perimetrium
D) Ovarian cortex

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18. Which hormone triggers ovulation?

A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

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19. The fallopian tubes are responsible for:

A) Producing eggs
B) Transporting eggs to the uterus
C) Supporting the fetus during pregnancy
D) Secreting hormones

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20. The structure that connects the uterus to the outside of the body is the:

A) Ovaries
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Vagina
D) Urethra

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21. The phase of the menstrual cycle during which the endometrial lining is shed is called:

A) Follicular phase
B) Ovulatory phase
C) Luteal phase
D) Menstrual phase

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22. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the uterine lining during the luteal phase?

A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

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23. The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle occurs:

A) After ovulation
B) Before ovulation
C) During menstruation
D) Throughout pregnancy

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24. Which of the following events occurs during the ovulatory phase?

A) Menstruation
B) Release of the egg from the ovary
C) Thickening of the uterine lining
D) Follicle formation

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25. The average duration of menstrual bleeding is typically:

A) 1-2 days
B) 3-5 days
C) 6-8 days
D) 10-12 days

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26. The rise in estrogen levels during the menstrual cycle triggers:

A) Menstruation
B) Ovulation
C) Sperm production
D) Fertilization

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27. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the growth of ovarian follicles?

A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone
D) Luteinizing hormone

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28. A missed period is often an early sign of:

A) Ovulation
B) Menopause
C) Pregnancy
D) Menstruation

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29. The premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is associated with:

A) High levels of estrogen
B) Low levels of progesterone
C) Hormonal fluctuations
D) Increased physical activity

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30. The luteal phase lasts approximately how many days?

A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 28 days

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31. Which of the following is a common sexually transmitted disease caused by a virus?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Syphilis
D) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

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32. The bacterial STD that often presents with no symptoms is:

A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Both B and C

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33. Which STD is characterized by the development of painful sores or blisters?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Genital herpes
C) Trichomoniasis
D) HPV

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34. The most effective way to prevent STDs is:

A) Abstinence
B) Using condoms
C) Regular medical check-ups
D) Both A and B

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35. HPV is linked to which of the following conditions?

A) Cervical cancer
B) Genital warts
C) Oral cancer
D) All of the above

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36. The treatment for bacterial STDs typically involves:

A) Antivirals
B) Antibiotics
C) Hormonal therapy
D) Surgery

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37. Which STD is caused by a protozoan?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Chlamydia
D) Syphilis

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38. Symptoms of gonorrhea in men may include:

A) Painful urination
B) Yellowish discharge
C) Swollen testicles
D) All of the above

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39. The risk of contracting STDs can be reduced by:

A) Having multiple sexual partners
B) Using protection during sexual activity
C) Skipping regular health screenings
D) Ignoring symptoms

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40. Which of the following STDs is caused by a spirochete bacterium?

A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis
D) Trichomoniasis

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41. Which STD is often asymptomatic in women but can lead to serious complications if left untreated?

A) Syphilis
B) Chlamydia
C) Gonorrhea
D) Genital herpes

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42. The characteristic rash of secondary syphilis typically appears on the:

A) Face
B) Trunk
C) Arms and legs
D) All of the above

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43. Which of the following STDs can be prevented by vaccination?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) HPV
D) Chlamydia

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44. The first stage of syphilis is characterized by the appearance of:

A) Warts
B) Chancre sores
C) Rash
D) Flu-like symptoms

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45. Trichomoniasis is primarily transmitted through:

A) Oral sex
B) Skin-to-skin contact
C) Vaginal intercourse
D) All of the above

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46. Which STD is known for causing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) if untreated?

A) Chlamydia
B) HPV
C) Syphilis
D) Gonorrhea

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47. The use of barrier methods during sexual activity helps to prevent:

A) Unplanned pregnancies
B) STDs
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

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48. Which STD is known as the “silent” infection due to its lack of symptoms in many individuals?

A) Syphilis
B) HIV
C) Chlamydia
D) Herpes

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49. The “window period” refers to:

A) The time between infection and the appearance of symptoms
B) The time during which a person is immune
C) The period after treatment when symptoms disappear
D) The time required for the menstrual cycle to reset

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50. A common symptom of genital herpes is:

A) Painful urination
B) Itching and burning
C) Redness and swelling
D) Discharge

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51. HIV primarily targets which type of cell in the immune system?

A) Red blood cells
B) Neutrophils
C) CD4 T cells
D) B cells

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52. The method used to diagnose STDs is typically:

A) Physical examination
B) Blood tests
C) Urine tests
D) All of the above

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53. What is the most common bacterial STD in the United States?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Syphilis
D) Trichomoniasis

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54. Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated pelvic inflammatory disease?

A) Infertility
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Chronic pelvic pain
D) All of the above

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55. A person diagnosed with HIV can live a healthy life for many years with:

A) No treatment
B) Antiretroviral therapy
C) Antibiotic treatment
D) Vaccination

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56. Which STD is caused by a parasite?

A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Syphilis

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57. A chancre is a sore associated with:

A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Herpes

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58. Which STD can be transmitted through sharing needles?

A) HPV
B) Gonorrhea
C) HIV
D) Chlamydia

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59. The human papillomavirus (HPV) can lead to:

A) Cervical cancer
B) Genital warts
C) Oral cancer
D) All of the above

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60. The best way to know your STD status is to:

A) Assume you are negative if you have no symptoms
B) Get tested regularly
C) Wait until you have symptoms
D) Rely on your partner’s test results

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61. The role of the seminiferous tubules is to:

A) Produce testosterone
B) Store sperm
C) Produce sperm
D) Secrete seminal fluid

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62. Which of the following is NOT a part of the male reproductive system?

A) Seminal vesicles
B) Urethra
C) Ovaries
D) Prostate

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63. The function of Leydig cells in the testes is to:

A) Produce sperm
B) Produce testosterone
C) Store sperm
D) Secrete seminal fluid

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64. Cryptorchidism refers to:

A) An infection of the testes
B) A condition where one or both testes fail to descend
C) A type of male infertility
D) A cancer of the prostate

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65. The function of the epididymis is to:

A) Produce sperm
B) Store and mature sperm
C) Produce testosterone
D) Secrete seminal fluid

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66. Which of the following is the average volume of semen in one ejaculation?

A) 1-2 mL
B) 5-7 mL
C) 10-15 mL
D) 20-25 mL

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67. The duct that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is called the:

A) Urethra
B) Vas deferens
C) Seminal vesicle
D) Epididymis

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68. The seminal vesicles contribute approximately what percentage of the volume of semen?

A) 10%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 60%

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69. Which part of the male reproductive system is responsible for the expulsion of semen?

A) Prostate gland
B) Urethra
C) Testes
D) Seminal vesicle

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70. The Cowper’s glands (bulbourethral glands) secrete a fluid that:

A) Provides nutrients for sperm
B) Lubricates the urethra
C) Neutralizes acidity in the urethra
D) All of the above

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71. The ovaries produce:

A) Eggs and estrogen
B) Eggs and testosterone
C) Progesterone only
D) Sperm

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72. The hormone responsible for triggering the menstrual cycle is:

A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone

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73. What is the primary role of the uterus?

A) Production of eggs
B) Support of a developing fetus
C) Production of hormones
D) Storage of sperm

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74. The fimbriae are:

A) The finger-like projections that help guide the egg into the fallopian tube
B) The part of the uterus that sheds during menstruation
C) The muscular layer of the uterus
D) The site of fertilization

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75. What marks the beginning of the menstrual cycle?

A) Ovulation
B) Menstruation
C) Fertilization
D) Implantation

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76. During which phase of the menstrual cycle does the endometrial lining thicken in preparation for a potential pregnancy?

A) Menstrual phase
B) Follicular phase
C) Luteal phase
D) Ovulatory phase

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77. The process of fertilization typically occurs in the:

A) Ovary
B) Uterus
C) Fallopian tube
D) Vagina

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78. Which structure in the female reproductive system serves as the birth canal?

A) Uterus
B) Vagina
C) Fallopian tubes
D) Ovaries

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79. The average age of menarche (first menstrual period) is around:

A) 9-10 years
B) 11-12 years
C) 13-15 years
D) 16-18 years

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80. Menopause is characterized by:

A) The cessation of menstruation
B) A decrease in estrogen production
C) The end of reproductive capability
D) All of the above

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81. Which STD is most commonly associated with the development of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Both A and C

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82. The primary method for preventing the spread of STDs is:

A) Regular screenings
B) Abstaining from sex
C) Using condoms
D) Both B and C

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83. Which of the following STDs can lead to infertility if left untreated?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) PID
D) All of the above

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84. Which of the following symptoms is common for both gonorrhea and chlamydia?

A) Painful urination
B) Abdominal pain
C) Discharge
D) All of the above

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85. The Gardasil vaccine protects against:

A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) HPV
D) Herpes

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86. Which STD is known to cause warts in the genital area?

A) Syphilis
B) HPV
C) Gonorrhea
D) Chlamydia

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87. Symptoms of genital warts can include:

A) Itching
B) Burning
C) Painful lesions
D) All of the above

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88. Which STD can be asymptomatic in many individuals?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Chlamydia
D) Both A and C

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89. Which of the following STDs is curable with proper treatment?

A) HIV
B) Genital herpes
C) Gonorrhea
D) HPV

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90. Early detection and treatment of STDs are important because:

A) They can cause severe health complications
B) They can spread to partners
C) They can be asymptomatic
D) All of the above

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91. A pregnant woman with untreated syphilis can pass the infection to her baby, leading to:

A) Birth defects
B) Stillbirth
C) Congenital syphilis
D) All of the above

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92. The main symptom of a syphilis infection is:

A) Warts
B) Discharge
C) A chancre sore
D) Itching

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93. The term “latency” in HIV refers to:

A) The time between infection and symptoms
B) The phase where the virus is dormant
C) The time during which the virus can be transmitted
D) Both A and B

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94. Which STD is known for causing recurrent sores?

A) Syphilis
B) Genital herpes
C) HPV
D) Chlamydia

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95. Which STD can cause liver damage?

A) HPV
B) Hepatitis B
C) Chlamydia
D) Gonorrhea

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96. The most effective way to detect STDs is through:

A) Self-examination
B) Regular medical testing
C) Observing symptoms
D) Partner’s report

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97. Which of the following is a non-curable STD?

A) Chlamydia
B) Gonorrhea
C) HIV
D) Syphilis

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98. The risk of STDs increases with:

A) Monogamous relationships
B) Multiple sexual partners
C) Regular health screenings
D) Use of protection

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99. Which STD is known to cause infections in the throat?

A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Syphilis
D) HPV

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100. The term “sexually transmitted infection” (STI) includes:

A) Only bacterial infections
B) Only viral infections
C) All types of infections transmitted through sexual contact
D) Only infections that show symptoms

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