MDCAT Support & Movement MCQs

1. The main function of cartilage in the human body is to:

A) Store fat
B) Provide flexibility and support
C) Produce blood cells
D) Transmit nerve signals

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2. Which type of cartilage is found in the nose and ears?

A) Hyaline cartilage
B) Fibrocartilage
C) Elastic cartilage
D) Articular cartilage

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3. The strongest type of cartilage, found in intervertebral discs, is:

A) Hyaline cartilage
B) Elastic cartilage
C) Fibrocartilage
D) Articular cartilage

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4. Cartilage is composed of:

A) Bone cells
B) Fibrous connective tissue
C) Chondrocytes and extracellular matrix
D) Adipose tissue

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5. What is the primary characteristic of elastic cartilage?

A) Ability to resist compression
B) High tensile strength
C) Flexibility due to elastic fibers
D) Ability to calcify

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6. Cartilage is avascular, meaning it:

A) Has no nerves
B) Has no blood supply
C) Is made of fat
D) Has a high metabolic rate

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7. Which type of cartilage acts as a shock absorber in joints?

A) Elastic cartilage
B) Fibrocartilage
C) Hyaline cartilage
D) All types of cartilage

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8. The extracellular matrix of cartilage contains:

A) High levels of collagen and proteoglycans
B) High levels of elastin and keratin
C) Only collagen fibers
D) Only ground substance

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9. Which cartilage is found at the ends of long bones and in the trachea?

A) Elastic cartilage
B) Fibrocartilage
C) Hyaline cartilage
D) None of the above

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10. What is the main cell type found in cartilage?

A) Osteocytes
B) Chondrocytes
C) Fibroblasts
D) Myocytes

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11. Which type of muscle is under voluntary control?

A) Cardiac muscle
B) Smooth muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) All of the above

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12. Cardiac muscle is unique because it is:

A) Non-striated
B) Voluntary
C) Striated and involuntary
D) Smooth and involuntary

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13. Which type of muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the intestines?

A) Cardiac muscle
B) Smooth muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Striated muscle

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14. The striations in skeletal muscle are due to:

A) The arrangement of connective tissue
B) The presence of mitochondria
C) The arrangement of actin and myosin filaments
D) The presence of nuclei

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15. Cardiac muscle fibers are connected by structures called:

A) Desmosomes
B) Gap junctions
C) Intercalated discs
D) Both B and C

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16. Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by:

A) Ligaments
B) Tendons
C) Cartilage
D) Fascia

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17. The primary function of smooth muscle is to:

A) Allow voluntary movement
B) Contract to facilitate involuntary movements of organs
C) Stabilize joints
D) Generate heat

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18. Which type of muscle has the longest fibers?

A) Smooth muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) None of the above

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19. Which muscle type has a single nucleus per cell?

A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Both B and C

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20. Skeletal muscle contraction is initiated by:

A) Nerve impulses
B) Hormones
C) Stretching of the muscle
D) Electrical signals from the heart

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21. The functional unit of skeletal muscle is called the:

A) Sarcomere
B) Myofibril
C) Fiber
D) Fascicle

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22. The outermost connective tissue layer surrounding a muscle is known as the:

A) Perimysium
B) Endomysium
C) Epimysium
D) Fascicle

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23. Myofibrils are composed of:

A) Actin and myosin
B) Collagen and elastin
C) Chondrocytes and osteocytes
D) Red and white blood cells

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24. The area where a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber meet is called:

A) Synapse
B) Neuromuscular junction
C) Myofibril
D) Motor unit

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25. The contractile protein that makes up the thick filaments in skeletal muscle is:

A) Tropomyosin
B) Myosin
C) Actin
D) Titin

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26. What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?

A) To break down ATP
B) To initiate the sliding filament mechanism
C) To maintain muscle tone
D) To provide energy for contraction

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27. The sliding filament theory describes the process of:

A) Muscle growth
B) Muscle contraction
C) Muscle relaxation
D) Muscle regeneration

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28. Which structure stores calcium ions in muscle cells?

A) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) T-tubules
C) Endomysium
D) Epimysium

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29. The region of the sarcomere where only thick filaments are present is called the:

A) A band
B) I band
C) H zone
D) Z line

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30. Which of the following structures helps to transmit the action potential into the muscle fiber?

A) Myofibrils
B) T-tubules
C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) Mitochondria

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31. Muscle contraction is triggered when:

A) Calcium levels decrease
B) Actin and myosin filaments slide past each other
C) ATP is depleted
D) Muscle fibers lengthen

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32. ATP is necessary for muscle contraction because it:

A) Provides energy for actin-myosin interactions
B) Is required for calcium reuptake
C) Helps maintain resting membrane potential
D) Both A and B

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33. During muscle contraction, the I band:

A) Increases in size
B) Decreases in size
C) Remains unchanged
D) Disappears completely

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34. The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is:

A) Norepinephrine
B) Dopamine
C) Acetylcholine
D) Serotonin

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35. The term “muscle tone” refers to:

A) The total strength of a muscle
B) The partial contraction of muscles at rest
C) The ability of a muscle to produce force
D) The color of muscle fibers

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36. Which of the following is NOT a phase of muscle contraction?

A) Excitation
B) Contraction
C) Relaxation
D) Refractory

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37. Muscle fibers contract in response to:

A) Nerve impulses
B) Hormonal signals
C) Stretching of the muscle
D) All of the above

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38. What is the result of muscle fibers shortening during contraction?

A) Muscle relaxation
B) Muscle elongation
C) Movement of bones
D) None of the above

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39. The active site on actin is blocked by:

A) Myosin
B) Tropomyosin
C) Calcium
D) ATP

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40. Which of the following is essential for the myosin head to detach from the actin filament?

A) Calcium ions
B) ADP
C) ATP
D) Tropomyosin

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41. The type of joint that allows for the greatest range of motion is:

A) Fibrous joint
B) Cartilaginous joint
C) Synovial joint
D) Fixed joint

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42. Which joint allows for rotational movement?

A) Hinge joint
B) Pivot joint
C) Ball-and-socket joint
D) Both B and C

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43. An example of a hinge joint is the:

A) Shoulder
B) Elbow
C) Hip
D) Wrist

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44. Which type of joint connects bones with fibrous tissue and allows no movement?

A) Synovial joint
B) Cartilaginous joint
C) Fibrous joint
D) All of the above

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45. The joint that connects the skull bones is classified as a:

A) Cartilaginous joint
B) Synovial joint
C) Fibrous joint
D) None of the above

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46. Which type of joint is found in the shoulder and hip?

A) Hinge joint
B) Pivot joint
C) Ball-and-socket joint
D) Saddle joint

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47. Which of the following joints allows for slight movement?

A) Synovial joint
B) Cartilaginous joint
C) Fibrous joint
D) Both B and C

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48. The wrist joint is an example of a:

A) Hinge joint
B) Ball-and-socket joint
C) Saddle joint
D) Ellipsoid joint

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49. The type of joint that allows for side-to-side and back-and-forth movement is:

A) Hinge joint
B) Ball-and-socket joint
C) Pivot joint
D) Gliding joint

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50. Which joint type allows for movement in multiple planes?

A) Hinge joint
B) Ball-and-socket joint
C) Pivot joint
D) Saddle joint

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51. Arthritis primarily affects the:

A) Muscles
B) Joints
C) Ligaments
D) Cartilage

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52. Which type of arthritis is characterized by inflammation of the joints due to an autoimmune response?

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Gout
D) Septic arthritis

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53. Osteoarthritis is commonly associated with:

A) Age-related wear and tear on joints
B) Autoimmune disorders
C) Infection
D) All of the above

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54. Gout is caused by:

A) Bacterial infection
B) Uric acid crystal deposits in joints
C) Autoimmune response
D) Cartilage degeneration

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55. Symptoms of arthritis may include:

A) Joint pain
B) Stiffness
C) Swelling
D) All of the above

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56. Which type of arthritis is often characterized by sudden, severe attacks of pain?

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Gout
D) Juvenile arthritis

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57. Which of the following is a common treatment for arthritis?

A) Antidepressants
B) Anti-inflammatory medications
C) Antibiotics
D) Muscle relaxants

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58. Rheumatoid arthritis typically affects:

A) Only the knees
B) Only older adults
C) Multiple joints symmetrically
D) The spine only

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59. Which of the following lifestyle changes can help manage arthritis symptoms?

A) Regular exercise
B) Maintaining a healthy weight
C) Diet changes
D) All of the above

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60. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm arthritis?

A) X-ray
B) MRI
C) Blood tests
D) All of the above

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61. What is a common characteristic of osteoarthritis?

A) Joint deformity
B) Erosion of cartilage
C) Sudden onset of symptoms
D) Fever

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62. The presence of rheumatoid factor in blood tests is associated with:

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Gout
D) Psoriatic arthritis

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63. Which type of arthritis can occur in children?

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Gout
D) All of the above

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64. What dietary component is often restricted in patients with gout?

A) Proteins
B) Carbohydrates
C) Purines
D) Fats

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65. Which joint is most commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

A) Fingers
B) Spine
C) Knees
D) All of the above

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66. Joint inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis is primarily caused by:

A) Bacterial infection
B) An autoimmune response
C) Age-related degeneration
D) Trauma

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67. Which medication is often prescribed for pain relief in arthritis?

A) Antipyretics
B) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) Antibiotics
D) Antidepressants

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68. Physical therapy for arthritis aims to:

A) Increase flexibility and strength
B) Prevent further joint damage
C) Relieve pain
D) All of the above

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69. A common surgical treatment for severe osteoarthritis is:

A) Joint fusion
B) Joint replacement
C) Arthroscopy
D) Both A and B

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70. The early symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis often include:

A) Joint swelling and pain
B) Nausea
C) Loss of appetite
D) Skin rashes

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71. The term “atrophy” in muscles refers to:

A) Increased muscle mass
B) Decreased muscle mass
C) Inflammation of muscle tissue
D) Spasms in muscles

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72. Muscle hypertrophy is primarily stimulated by:

A) Inactivity
B) Resistance training
C) Poor nutrition
D) Aging

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73. Which joint type allows for the least movement?

A) Hinge
B) Synovial
C) Fibrous
D) Ball-and-socket

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74. In which type of arthritis is the cartilage breakdown uneven, leading to bone spurs?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Gout
D) Septic arthritis

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75. Which muscle type is responsible for the heartbeat?

A) Smooth muscle
B) Skeletal muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) None of the above

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76. Which structure connects muscle to bone?

A) Ligaments
B) Tendons
C) Cartilage
D) Fascia

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77. A common symptom of arthritis is:

A) Muscle spasms
B) Joint stiffness and pain
C) Fever and chills
D) Fatigue

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78. Which of the following is a function of skeletal muscle?

A) Maintaining posture
B) Producing heat
C) Facilitating movement
D) All of the above

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79. Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle?

A) Striated appearance
B) Involuntary control
C) Multinucleated cells
D) Voluntary control

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80. The role of synovial fluid in joints is to:

A) Provide nutrients to cartilage
B) Lubricate the joint
C) Reduce friction
D) All of the above

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81. Which of the following structures helps stabilize synovial joints?

A) Ligaments
B) Tendons
C) Cartilage
D) All of the above

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82. Which type of arthritis is associated with a “pincer” grip due to joint damage?

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Gout
D) Psoriatic arthritis

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83. What is the primary source of energy for muscle contraction?

A) Protein
B) Carbohydrates
C) Fat
D) ATP

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84. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cardiac muscle?

A) Striated
B) Voluntary
C) Involuntary
D) Contains intercalated discs

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85. Which type of muscle is responsible for involuntary movements?

A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Both B and C

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86. The process by which a muscle fiber contracts is known as:

A) Sarcomere shortening
B) Muscle twitching
C) Muscle contraction
D) Neuromuscular coupling

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87. The role of tropomyosin in muscle contraction is to:

A) Bind calcium
B) Block the active site on actin
C) Attach to myosin
D) Facilitate ATP breakdown

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88. Which structure is primarily responsible for the elastic recoil of muscles after contraction?

A) Actin
B) Myosin
C) Titin
D) Tropomyosin

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89. Which of the following best describes the function of ligaments?

A) Connect muscle to bone
B) Connect bone to bone
C) Stabilize joints
D) Both B and C

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90. What type of arthritis is characterized by a buildup of uric acid?

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Gout
D) Infectious arthritis

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91. Which of the following joints is classified as a saddle joint?

A) Thumb joint
B) Elbow joint
C) Hip joint
D) Shoulder joint

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92. Which of the following best describes arthritis?

A) A bone disease
B) Inflammation of one or more joints
C) A muscle disorder
D) None of the above

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93. The breakdown of cartilage in arthritis leads to:

A) Increased mobility
B) Joint pain and stiffness
C) Enhanced blood flow
D) Muscle hypertrophy

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94. Which is NOT a common treatment for arthritis?

A) Corticosteroids
B) Antibiotics
C) Physical therapy
D) Surgery

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95. Which type of joint allows for the most movement?

A) Ball-and-socket
B) Hinge
C) Fibrous
D) Cartilaginous

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96. Which type of arthritis affects the synovial membrane?

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Gout
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Both B and C

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97. Which of the following is true about skeletal muscles?

A) They are involuntary
B) They have multiple nuclei
C) They are non-striated
D) They are found in the walls of organs

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98. The primary function of tendons is to:

A) Connect bones to muscles
B) Stabilize joints
C) Provide nutrients to muscles
D) Connect muscle fibers

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99. Which type of joint is primarily involved in rotational movements?

A) Hinge
B) Pivot
C) Saddle
D) Gliding

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100. What type of muscle tissue is responsible for voluntary movements?

A) Smooth muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) All muscle types

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